|Source: Proceedings of the Aristotelian Society 1995|
|Paper - Abstract|
Philosophers Index Abstract
On a no-recollected-experience account of dreaming such as that inspired by remarks of Wittgenstein (Macdonald, Bouwsma, Malcolm, Hunter, Dennett, McFee) are there adequate reasons for supposing that dreams occur "during sleep1?" The following suggestions are considered: 1) External behavior. 2) The word of the reporter. 3) Occurrence of the process that causes the waking report (and perhaps from which its content could in theory be predicted). 4) Acquisition of the disposition to tell the dream. I suggest these fail and the Wittgensteinian account is revisionary.
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